150 practice questions and 100 flashcards covering essential first aid, CPR, BLS, and emergency response skills.
Basic First Aid knowledge is practically important and commonly tested in South African workplace certification requirements, community health assessments, and preparedness courses. Tour practice set covers the core first aid competencies: CPR and AED use, choking response, bleeding control, burn treatment, fracture management, shock recognition and treatment, and recognition of medical emergencies including heart attack, stroke, diabetic emergency, and seizure.
First aid knowledge needs to be fast and automatic. These questions are designed to build confident recall you can rely on when someone needs help and you have seconds to respond.
Basic First Aid and Emergency Response. Covers the DRSABCD action plan, CPR technique, AED use, choking management, wound care, burns, fractures, stroke, heart attack, anaphylaxis, poisoning, and more. Questions reflect current guidelines (AHA/ERC). Always seek professional medical training for hands-on skills.
0/150
correct answers
Q1/150
What does DRSABCD stand for?
Explanation: DRSABCD: SA first aid primary survey. Check for Danger, assess Response, Send/call for help, open Airway, check Breathing, start CPR, use Defibrillator.
Q2/150
First step in any first aid emergency?
Explanation: Safety first: never become a casualty yourself. Check for traffic, electricity, hazardous materials, unstable structures before approaching victim.
Q3/150
What is the emergency number for medical emergencies in South Africa?
Explanation: SA Medical Emergency: 10177 (government/Western Cape EMS). 10111 (SAPS). 112 (universal mobile). Private: 082 911 (Netcare), 084 124 (ER24).
Q4/150
To check if a person is responsive, you should?
Explanation: AVPU: Alert, responds to Voice, responds to Pain, Unresponsive. Tap shoulders firmly and shout clearly. Don't shake spinal injury patients.
Q5/150
Correct adult CPR compression rate?
Explanation: AHA/ERC guideline: 100-120 compressions per minute. To the beat of 'Stayin' Alive'. Allow full chest recoil between compressions.
Q6/150
Correct depth for adult CPR chest compressions?
Explanation: At least 5cm (2 inches) but no more than 6cm. Too shallow = ineffective. Too deep = rib fractures. Allow full recoil.
Q7/150
Correct CPR compression-to-breath ratio for adults (one rescuer)?
Explanation: 30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths. If untrained or unwilling to give breaths: hands-only CPR (compressions only) is acceptable.
Q8/150
Where do you place your hands for adult CPR?
Explanation: Hand position: heel of dominant hand on lower half of sternum. Second hand on top, fingers interlaced or raised. Arms straight, push down.
Q9/150
When do you stop CPR?
Explanation: Stop CPR: ROSC (return of spontaneous circulation), AED instructing, trained emergency personnel take over, physical exhaustion, obvious death signs.
Q10/150
What is the recovery position?
Explanation: Recovery position: unconscious but breathing. Roll to side, top knee bent, head tilted back slightly. Prevents vomiting from blocking airway.
Q11/150
What is agonal breathing?
Explanation: Agonal breathing: gasping, irregular, slow breaths after cardiac arrest. NOT effective. Treat as absent breathing — start CPR immediately.
Q12/150
For an infant CPR, compression method used?
Explanation: Infant (<1 year): single rescuer — two fingers on lower sternum. Two rescuers — two-thumb encircling technique allows better compression depth.
Q13/150
Infant CPR compression depth?
Explanation: Infant: compress 4cm (1.5 inches) or ⅓ depth of chest. Rate: 100-120/min. Ratio: 30:2 (single) or 15:2 (two healthcare providers).
Q14/150
What is an AED?
Explanation: AED: analyses heart rhythm, delivers shock if appropriate (VF or VT). Shockable rhythms. Follow voice prompts. Attach ASAP — every minute without defibrillation reduces survival 10%.
Q15/150
When attaching AED pads, placement should be?
Explanation: AED pad placement: right — below right clavicle. Left — lateral chest wall, below left armpit. Alternative: anterior-posterior (front and back).
Q16/150
What do you say when AED is analysing?
Explanation: 'Stand clear!' — everyone must step away when AED analyses (no contact) and when delivering shock. Touching casualty could cause shock to rescuer.
Q17/150
What should you do immediately after AED delivers a shock?
Explanation: After shock: immediately resume CPR (30:2). Don't delay to check pulse. Re-check after 2 minutes. AED will re-analyse when prompted.
Q18/150
Heimlich maneuver is used for?
Explanation: Heimlich/abdominal thrusts: severe choking in adult/child. 5 back blows, then 5 abdominal thrusts. Alternate until obstruction dislodged or person loses consciousness.
Q19/150
What do you do if a choking person becomes unconscious?
Explanation: Unconscious choking: lower to floor safely. Call help. Start CPR — compressions may dislodge obstruction. Before each breath, look in mouth and remove visible object.
Q20/150
Back blows for choking infant should be given?
Explanation: Infant choking: face-down on forearm, head lower than body. 5 firm back blows with heel of hand. Then 5 chest thrusts face-up. Repeat.
Q21/150
Correct treatment for a minor cut (wound)?
Explanation: Minor wound: wash hands first. Rinse wound under clean running water. Clean surrounding skin. Apply sterile dressing. Change dressing if soiled.
Q22/150
For severe bleeding, the priority is?
Explanation: Severe bleeding: direct pressure is primary. Use clean cloth/bandage, press firmly and continuously. Elevate limb if possible. Don't remove cloth — add more on top if soaking through.
Q23/150
A tourniquet should be applied?
Explanation: Tourniquet: last resort for catastrophic limb bleeding. 2-3 finger widths above wound. Note time applied. Never remove in field. Commercial tourniquet preferred.
Q24/150
Burn first aid: first action for thermal burn?
Explanation: Burn cooling: cool running water for minimum 20 minutes. Reduces heat, relieves pain, limits tissue damage. Never use ice, butter, toothpaste.
Q25/150
What should you NOT apply to a burn?
Explanation: Never apply: ice (frostbite risk), butter/oil (infection, insulates heat), toothpaste (infection). Keep clean. Cover with cling film or non-fluffy sterile dressing.
ADVERTISEMENT
Q26/150
Rule of nines — adult head and neck = what % of body surface area?
Explanation: Rule of nines: head/neck=9%, each arm=9%, chest=18%, abdomen=18%, each leg=18%, genitals=1%. Estimates burn percentage for treatment decisions.
Explanation: Shock position: supine, legs elevated 30cm (raises venous return). Insulate from ground. Do not give oral fluids — risk of aspiration.
Q29/150
FAST acronym for stroke recognition?
Explanation: FAST: Face (drooping/uneven smile), Arms (one weak/drifting), Speech (slurred/confused), Time (call 10177 immediately — every minute counts).
Q30/150
What should you NOT give a stroke patient?
Explanation: Stroke: do not give anything by mouth. Swallowing may be impaired. Aspirin controversial for stroke (may be haemorrhagic). Call emergency services immediately.
Q31/150
Signs of a heart attack?
Explanation: Heart attack (MI): typical — central crushing chest pain. Atypical (women, diabetics): back pain, jaw pain, nausea, fatigue without chest pain.
Q32/150
First aid for suspected heart attack?
Explanation: AMI first aid: rest in comfortable position (usually W-sitting). 300mg aspirin chewed (if not allergic, no bleeding history). Loosen clothing. Prepare for CPR.
Q33/150
What is anaphylaxis?
Explanation: Anaphylaxis: severe systemic allergic reaction. Urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, hypotension. Can be fatal within minutes. Causes: nuts, shellfish, bee stings, medications.
Q34/150
First line treatment for anaphylaxis is?
Explanation: Adrenaline (epinephrine) IM: first-line. EpiPen auto-injector. Outer mid-thigh. Can be given through clothing. Antihistamines and steroids are adjunctive only.
Q35/150
What is the difference between a fracture and a dislocation?
Explanation: Fracture: bone broken. Dislocation: bone forced out of joint (shoulder, fingers common). First aid: immobilise and don't try to reduce (put back).
Q36/150
For a suspected spinal injury, you should?
Explanation: Spinal injury: if suspected, keep head, neck, spine in neutral alignment. Only move if danger present. Log roll with multiple rescuers if must move. Cervical collar if available.
Q37/150
Open fracture (compound fracture) first aid?
Explanation: Open fracture: cover protruding bone with moist sterile dressing. Don't push back. Control bleeding with dressing around (not on) bone. Immobilise and call emergency services.
Explanation: Elevation: raises injured part above heart level → reduces arterial pressure → less bleeding and swelling. Used for wounds, sprains, fractures.
Explanation: Hypo treatment: 15g simple carbs (3 glucose tabs, 15g sugar in water). Re-check after 15 min. If improved, give complex carb snack. If unconscious: call ambulance, don't give oral glucose.
Explanation: Heimlich: stand behind choking person. Fist: thumb side against upper abdomen (between navel and ribs). Firm inward-upward thrusts.
Q46/150
What is the purpose of the primary survey (DRSABCD)?
Explanation: Primary survey: systematic, prioritised. Life threats: airway obstruction > no breathing > no circulation > defibrillation. Treat as you find, most critical first.
Q47/150
What is the secondary survey?
Explanation: Secondary survey: after primary survey. SAMPLE history: Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events. Head-to-toe examination.
Q48/150
Signs of heat stroke (hyperthermia)?
Explanation: Heat stroke: thermoregulation failure. Hot DRY skin (sweating stopped), temperature >40°C, confusion, seizures, coma. Medical emergency — cool immediately.
Q49/150
First aid for heat stroke?
Explanation: Heat stroke cooling: rapid cooling is essential. Ice to neck, armpits, groin (high blood flow areas). Wet sheet + fan. Cold IV fluids if available. Target <38°C.
Explanation: Hypothermia rewarming: passive (blankets) or active external rewarming. Trunk first. No vigorous rubbing — cold blood can reach heart. No alcohol.
Q52/150
What is the poison control number in South Africa?
Explanation: SA Poison Information: 0861 555 777 (Tygerberg Poison Information Centre, 24/7). Identify substance, amount, time. Do not induce vomiting unless instructed.
Q53/150
If someone swallows an unknown poison, you should?
Explanation: Swallowed poison: do NOT induce vomiting (may cause more damage or aspiration). Call 0861 555 777. Follow their instructions. Keep product container.
Q54/150
What is anaphylaxis versus a simple allergic reaction?
Explanation: Anaphylaxis: TWO or more body systems affected (skin + respiratory, or skin + cardiovascular). One system (skin only) = allergic reaction, not anaphylaxis.
Q55/150
What is CPR?
Explanation: CPR: maintain circulation and oxygenation when heart stops. Compressions do ~30% of normal cardiac output. Buys time until defibrillation or ROSC.
Q56/150
What does AED stand for?
Explanation: AED: automated, guides untrained rescuers through voice prompts. Analyses rhythm — delivers shock only for shockable rhythms (VF/VT).
Q57/150
Hands-only CPR is appropriate when?
Explanation: Hands-only: recommended for untrained bystanders or cardiac arrest in adults. Continuous compressions without interruption for breaths.
Q58/150
What is ventricular fibrillation (VF)?
Explanation: VF: most common cardiac arrest rhythm in adults. Heart quivers — no effective cardiac output. Defibrillation can restore normal rhythm.
Q59/150
Why is early defibrillation critical?
Explanation: Survival decreases ~10%/minute without defibrillation. CPR + AED within 3-5 minutes: survival up to 70%. Every second counts.
Q60/150
What is the correct sequence when a person collapses?
Explanation: DRSABCD sequence ensures systematic life-saving: don't skip steps. Send for help before airway check (except lone rescuer with infant — 2min CPR first).
Q61/150
How should you open an adult's airway?
Explanation: Head-tilt chin-lift: most effective for unconscious patients. Tilt head back (extends neck), lift chin (moves tongue from airway). Suspect spinal? Use jaw thrust instead.
Q62/150
Jaw thrust technique is used when?
Explanation: Jaw thrust: place fingers behind angles of jaw, push jaw forward. Opens airway without neck extension. For suspected cervical spine injury.
Q63/150
What fraction of the chest depth should compressions reach in a child (1-8 years)?
Explanation: Child CPR: at least 5cm or ⅓ of chest depth. Rate: 100-120/min. One or two hands depending on child's size. 30:2 ratio single rescuer.
Q64/150
What is a rescue breath (mouth-to-mouth)?
Explanation: Rescue breath: seal mouth, pinch nose, give breath over 1 second until chest visibly rises. Don't over-inflate — causes gastric regurgitation.
Q65/150
What is the 'look, listen and feel' check for breathing?
Explanation: Look: chest movement. Listen: breath sounds. Feel: air on your cheek. 10-second check maximum. If no normal breathing → start CPR.
Q66/150
Gasping (agonal breathing) after cardiac arrest should be treated as?
Explanation: Agonal breathing: gasps or irregular breaths in first minutes after cardiac arrest. Common cause of CPR delay — trained people recognise and ignore it.
Q67/150
When should you NOT do a head-tilt chin-lift?
Explanation: Head-tilt is contraindicated with known or suspected cervical spine injury. Jaw thrust maintains airway without neck extension.
Q68/150
Two rescuer CPR: what does the second rescuer do?
Explanation: Two-rescuer CPR: one compresses, one ventilates. Switch compressor every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue — compressor fatigue reduces quality within 2 min.
Q69/150
What is CPR fatigue and how is it addressed?
Explanation: CPR fatigue: effective compressions require significant effort. Quality degrades in <2 minutes. Two-rescuer: switch compressor every 2 min. Minimize interruptions.
Q70/150
What is the maximum pause in CPR (e.g., for AED analysis)?
Explanation: No shock advised: non-shockable rhythm (asystole or PEA). Resume CPR immediately. Continue until ROSC, AED re-analyzes, or trained help arrives.
Q72/150
Adrenaline (epinephrine) auto-injector (EpiPen) should be given?
Explanation: EpiPen: IM injection, anterolateral thigh. Can penetrate denim. Blue to sky (remove cap), orange to thigh, hold 10 seconds. Massage site.
Q73/150
After using EpiPen for anaphylaxis?
Explanation: After EpiPen: always call 10177. Effects wear off in 10-20 minutes. Second EpiPen may be needed. Biphasic reaction can occur hours later.
Q74/150
Correct treatment sequence for choking adult?
Explanation: Choking: 5 firm back blows (heel of hand, between shoulder blades). If ineffective: 5 abdominal thrusts (Heimlich). Alternate. If unconscious: start CPR.
Q75/150
What is a partial airway obstruction (mild choking)?
Explanation: Mild obstruction: effective cough, can speak/breathe. Encourage coughing — most effective dislodging mechanism. Stand by, do not interfere. Call for help if deteriorates.
ADVERTISEMENT
Q76/150
What do you do if an infant is not breathing?
Explanation: Infant non-breathing: 5 initial rescue breaths (may open airway). Then 30:2 (single) or 15:2 (two rescuers). Sequence different from adult — respiratory cause more likely.
Q77/150
Burns: what size burn requires hospital treatment?
Explanation: Inhalation injury: airway can swell and close rapidly. Sit upright, humidified O2, urgent hospital transfer. Most burn deaths are from inhalation, not skin burns.
Q79/150
What is the correct first aid for a chemical eye injury?
Explanation: Chemical eye: immediately irrigate with water (or saline) copiously for 20-30 min. Don't delay for ambulance. Water removes/dilutes chemical. Call poison control.
Q80/150
What does SAMPLE stand for in first aid assessment?
Explanation: SAMPLE: systematic secondary survey history. Essential for handover to emergency services. Helps identify relevant medical conditions.
Q81/150
What is the position for a casualty in shock?
Explanation: Shock position: supine + legs 30cm elevated (auto-transfusion effect — blood returns to vital organs). Contra: head injury, breathing difficulty, spinal injury.
Q82/150
How do you treat a suspected dislocated shoulder?
Explanation: Dislocation: do NOT attempt reduction in field (nerve/vessel damage risk). Immobilise as found. Ice for pain/swelling. X-ray first in hospital.
Q83/150
Signs of internal bleeding?
Explanation: Internal bleeding: no visible blood loss but signs of shock. Bruising (ecchymosis) may develop. Abdominal guarding. Rigid abdomen. Blood in urine/stool. Urgent emergency.
Q84/150
What is the correct first aid for a dental avulsion (tooth knocked out)?
Explanation: Knocked-out tooth: hold by crown (not root), rinse briefly, replant if possible or store in milk/saliva/saline. Within 30 min: very good prognosis. Don't dry out.
Q85/150
What is crowd crush/compression first aid?
Explanation: Crowd crush: traumatic compression asphyxia. Remove from pressure ASAP. Monitor breathing. Reperfusion syndrome: potassium and myoglobin release can cause cardiac arrest.
Q86/150
What is the universal sign for choking?
Explanation: Universal choking sign: hands clasped around throat. Recognised internationally. Prompt to ask 'Are you choking?' if they cannot speak or cough effectively.
Q87/150
Why shouldn't you remove an impaled object?
Explanation: Impaled objects: leave in place. Stabilise with bulky dressings around (not on) object. Removal in field causes uncontrolled bleeding. Remove surgically.
Q88/150
What is cardiac arrest?
Explanation: Cardiac arrest: electrical malfunction stopping heart. Different from heart attack (blocked artery). Time-critical: brain damage begins within 4-6 minutes.
Q89/150
What is the chain of survival?
Explanation: Chain of survival: Early recognition → CPR → Defibrillation → Advanced care. Each minute without CPR/defibrillation reduces survival significantly.
Q90/150
What is ROSC?
Explanation: ROSC: signs include breathing, movement, coughing, pulse. After ROSC: recovery position, oxygen, transport to hospital, monitor for re-arrest.
Q91/150
What is bystander CPR?
Explanation: Bystander CPR: triples survival rates in some studies. Most cardiac arrests occur at home. Training family members is critical.
Q92/150
Correct head-tilt chin-lift technique?
Explanation: Head-tilt chin-lift: lifts tongue from posterior pharynx. Don't press soft tissue under chin (compresses airway). Neutral position for infant.
Q93/150
What is the tongue-jaw lift used for?
Explanation: Tongue-jaw lift: grasp tongue and jaw between thumb and finger, lift mandible. Useful for inspecting/clearing visible mouth obstruction.
Q94/150
How do you perform a mouth-to-mask ventilation?
Explanation: Pocket mask: position over nose and mouth, apply two-hand grip, form seal, blow until chest rises. Better seal and hygiene than direct mouth-to-mouth.
Q95/150
What is the sternal rub?
Explanation: Sternal rub: assess response to pain (P in AVPU). Unreliable sign — many conditions cause no response. Use with other assessment.
Q96/150
What position for CPR on a pregnant woman?
Explanation: Pregnant CPR: manual left uterine displacement or 15-30° left lateral tilt. Aortocaval compression (uterus on vena cava) reduces venous return.
Explanation: Haemothorax: blood (not air) in pleural space. Reduces lung expansion. 1-1.5L in hemithorax causes haemodynamic compromise. Requires chest drain.
Q100/150
What is flail chest?
Explanation: Flail chest: ≥3 adjacent ribs each fractured in ≥2 places. Free segment moves opposite to chest wall (in during inspiration). Painful, ineffective breathing.
ADVERTISEMENT
Q101/150
First aid for a sucking chest wound?
Explanation: Sucking chest wound: open pneumothorax. Three-sided seal: allows air out (prevents tension) but not in. Vented dressings (HALO, Asherman) preferred.
Q102/150
What is crush syndrome?
Explanation: Crush syndrome: myoglobin from damaged muscle + hyperkalaemia. Released when pressure removed. Can cause renal failure and VF. Warning: don't release after prolonged crush without IV access.
Q103/150
Signs and symptoms of a closed head injury?
Explanation: Closed head injury: primary injury (impact) and secondary injury (oedema, haemorrhage). Signs: raccoon eyes, Battle's sign, CSF from ears/nose indicate skull fracture.
Q104/150
What is Battle's sign?
Explanation: Battle's sign: bruising over mastoid process (behind ear). Indicates posterior skull base fracture. Raccoon eyes (periorbital bruising) = anterior skull base fracture.
Q105/150
First aid for an impaled eye?
Explanation: Impaled eye: cover BOTH eyes — consensual movement. Cup over object (don't press). Keep victim calm. Urgent ophthalmological care. Do NOT remove object.
Explanation: Compartment syndrome: increased pressure (cast too tight, swelling) → ischaemia. Excruciating pain out of proportion to injury. Emergency fasciotomy required.
Q108/150
What is a greenstick fracture?
Explanation: Greenstick: children's flexible bones. Crack on one side, bend on other. Like bending a green twig. Less displacement than complete fracture.
Q109/150
What is a Colles fracture?
Explanation: Colles fracture: very common. Wrist fracture with 'dinner fork deformity.' Common in osteoporotic older women and active children. Fall on outstretched hand.
Q110/150
What is the Ottawa Ankle Rules?
Explanation: Ottawa Ankle Rules: X-ray if bone tenderness at posterior edge/tip of lateral or medial malleolus, or inability to weight bear (4 steps). Reduces X-rays by 30%.
Q111/150
Signs of a pelvic fracture?
Explanation: Pelvic fracture: high-energy trauma. Can bleed 3-4+ litres internally. Instability of pelvic ring. Pelvic binder or sheet wrap reduces volume and blood loss.
Q112/150
What is epistaxis (nosebleed) caused by?
Explanation: Anterior nosebleed: 90%. Kiesselbach's plexus. Pinch soft lower nose 10 min. Posterior bleeds: severe, ENT involvement needed. Hypertension can worsen, not always cause.
Q113/150
What is evisceration?
Explanation: Evisceration: open abdominal wound with organ protrusion. Cover with large moist sterile dressing. Do NOT push back. Position supine with knees bent. Call emergency.
Q114/150
What is a sucking wound?
Explanation: Sucking chest wound: open pneumothorax. Air moves through wound into pleural space. Seal to stop air entry. Monitor for tension pneumothorax.
Q115/150
What is the 'golden hour' in trauma?
Explanation: Golden hour (Cowley): time-sensitive trauma. Most deaths in first hour preventable. Rapid stabilisation, haemorrhage control, transport to trauma centre critical.
Q116/150
What is haemostatic dressing?
Explanation: Haemostatic dressings: kaolin (Quikclot) or chitosan (Celox/HemCon). For junctional wounds (groin, axilla) where tourniquet can't be applied. Pack wound, maintain pressure.
Q117/150
What is the MARCH protocol in tactical medicine?
Explanation: MARCH: massive haemorrhage control first (bleeding kills fastest), then airway, respirations (chest wounds), circulation (shock), hypothermia prevention.
Q118/150
First aid for eye chemical burn vs thermal burn?
Explanation: Chemical eye: IMMEDIATE irrigation priority. Every second counts. Thermal: eyelid burn — cool skin, protect globe, cover, seek urgent ophthalmology.
Q119/150
What is a burn blister?
Explanation: Blister: sign of superficial partial-thickness burn. Intact = protective barrier. Burst = infection risk. Cover with non-adherent dressing.
Explanation: Paediatric burns: Lund and Browder chart accounts for age-related proportional differences. Rule of Nines underestimates head and overestimates legs in children.
Explanation: Heat exhaustion: sweating still working. Cool, clammy skin. BP may drop. Move to cool area, hydrate, cool with wet cloths. NOT a medical emergency (unlike heat stroke).
Q124/150
What is the difference between heat exhaustion and heat stroke?
Explanation: Heat stroke: emergency. Hot, dry skin (or sometimes wet). Confusion, agitation, loss of consciousness. Rapid cooling essential.
Q125/150
What is submersion injury (near-drowning)?
Explanation: Near-drowning (submersion injury): ALL near-drowning victims need hospital evaluation. Secondary drowning (pulmonary oedema) can develop 24 hours later.
Q126/150
First aid for near-drowning victim?
Explanation: Near-drowning CPR: rescue breathing first (hypoxia is primary issue). Compressions if no pulse. No abdominal compression to 'drain' water — not effective.
Q127/150
What is a diving (decompression) illness?
Explanation: Decompression sickness: 'the bends.' Nitrogen bubbles form during rapid ascent. Joint pain, paralysis, skin mottling. 100% O2, urgent hyperbaric chamber.
Q128/150
What is air embolism?
Explanation: Air embolism: air in vasculature. Diving: arterial gas embolism during ascent. IV: avoid air in lines. Symptoms: stroke, LOC, chest pain. Treatment: left lateral head-down, hyperbaric O2.
Q129/150
What is a febrile seizure?
Explanation: Febrile seizure: most common type of seizure in children. Triggered by fever >38°C. Most last <5 minutes. Usually benign, but seek medical advice.
Q130/150
First aid for a seizure?
Explanation: Seizure first aid: clear dangerous objects, protect head with soft padding, time it, don't restrain, don't put anything in mouth. After: recovery position.
Q131/150
When is a seizure an emergency?
Explanation: Status epilepticus: >5 minutes or multiple. Call emergency. Don't wait. Also emergency: first seizure, seizure in water (drowning risk), head trauma, pregnancy.
Q132/150
What is a transient ischaemic attack (TIA)?
Explanation: TIA: temporary stroke symptoms. Resolve within 24 hours (usually minutes). High risk of full stroke within 48-72 hours. Treat as stroke — urgent medical evaluation.
Q133/150
What is the primary assessment difference for infants vs adults?
Explanation: Infant primary cause: respiratory arrest. Give 5 initial breaths before CPR. Different rates: newborn 40-60/min breathing, infant HR 100-160/min.
Q134/150
Normal adult respiratory rate?
Explanation: Normal adult RR: 12-20 breaths/minute. <12 or >20: abnormal. <8: severe compromise, assist ventilation. >30: severe distress.
Q135/150
Normal adult heart rate?
Explanation: Normal adult HR: 60-100 bpm. Bradycardia <60. Tachycardia >100. Athletes can have resting HR 40-50 (normal for them).
Q136/150
What is SpO₂ and normal range?
Explanation: SpO₂: non-invasive blood oxygen saturation. <94%: supplemental O2. <90%: severe hypoxaemia. <85%: critical. Can be falsely normal in CO poisoning.
Q137/150
What is cyanosis?
Explanation: Central cyanosis: tongue/mucous membranes blue. Severe hypoxaemia. Peripheral cyanosis: fingers/lips (may be cold/poor circulation). Central is more clinically significant.
Q138/150
What is the difference between unconscious and unresponsive?
Explanation: Both indicate altered consciousness. Practical first aid: if eyes closed + no response = treat as unconscious. Assess AVPU. Both require urgent assessment.
Q139/150
What is the primary purpose of bandages in first aid?
Explanation: Bandages: triangular (slings, wound covering), roller (secure dressings, pressure, support), elastic (compression, support). Not a primary wound dressing.
Q140/150
What is the correct technique for a recovery position?
Explanation: Recovery position: lateral position. Bent knee prevents rolling forward. Extended arm prevents rolling backward. Head tilt maintains airway. Check breathing regularly.
Q141/150
How often should you reassess a casualty while waiting for help?
Explanation: Reassess: vitals every 5 minutes in unstable patient. Document changes. Note trends (improving or deteriorating). Report changes on handover to emergency services.
Q142/150
What is the recovery position for a pregnant woman?
Explanation: Pregnant recovery: left lateral position. Uterus compresses IVC when supine or right lateral → reduced venous return → reduced cardiac output. Left lateral relieves this.
Q143/150
What is a burn dressing?
Explanation: Burn cover: cling film ideal (or non-fluffy sterile dressing). Do NOT use cotton wool (sticks to wound). Cling film: transparent for monitoring, non-adherent, sterile from roll.
Q144/150
When is direct pressure NOT sufficient for bleeding control?
Explanation: Tourniquet indicated: arterial bleeding not controlled by pressure, catastrophic limb haemorrhage, amputation. Time application, apply 5cm proximal to wound.
Q145/150
What is the purpose of keeping a casualty warm in first aid?
Explanation: Hypothermia worsens outcomes: impairs clotting (trauma triad of death: acidosis, coagulopathy, hypothermia). Insulate from ground, cover with space blanket.
Q146/150
What is the first aid for a dislocated finger?
Explanation: Finger dislocation: immobilise as found. Ice (wrapped). Never attempt reduction in field (neurovascular structures at risk). X-ray to exclude fracture before reduction.
Q147/150
What is the correct first aid for suspected carbon monoxide poisoning?
Explanation: CO poisoning: colourless, odourless. Move to fresh air. 100% high-flow O2 speeds CO elimination. Pulse oximetry falsely normal (detects carboxyhaemoglobin as oxyhaemoglobin). Hospital urgently.
Q148/150
What is the correct management of a partially avulsed tooth?
Explanation: Partial avulsion (tooth partly knocked out): do NOT remove. Gently reposition if possible. Hold in place by biting on moist gauze or by holding. Dentist ASAP.
Q149/150
What does AED's 'No shock advised' mean for CPR?
Explanation: No shock advised: asystole or PEA detected. These are not shockable. But CPR continues — compressions still circulate blood. Re-analyse every 2 minutes.
Q150/150
What is CPR quality defined by?
Explanation: CPR quality: all five elements matter equally. Inadequate depth is as harmful as too slow rate. Recoil allows heart to refill. Minimise pauses — every interruption reduces coronary perfusion.
The recovery position is used for unconscious patients who are breathing. Turn the person onto their side, with the upper knee bent to prevent them rolling forward, the upper arm under their head, and the lower arm extended. Tour keeps the airway open and allows fluid to drain from the mouth, preventing aspiration.
For adult CPR: 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths (30:2 ratio). Compressions: push hard (at least 5cm depth) and fast (100–120 per minute) on the centre of the chest. Allow full chest recoil. If untrained or unwilling to give breaths, hands-only CPR (compression-only) is still effective. Continue until AED arrives or professional help takes over.
RICE is the initial treatment for soft tissue injuries (sprains, strains, minor fractures): Rest (stop activity, protect the injured area), Ice (apply ice wrapped in cloth for 20 minutes every 2 hours), Compression (bandage firmly to reduce swelling), Elevation (raise the injured limb above heart level to reduce blood flow and swelling).
Use the FAST acronym: Face drooping (ask person to smile — does one side droop?), Arm weakness (ask to raise both arms — does one drift down?), Speech difficulty (slurred or strange speech), Time to call emergency services immediately. A stroke is a medical emergency — brain cells die every minute without treatment. Also: sudden vision changes, severe headache, loss of balance.
Anaphylaxis is life-threatening. Immediate treatment: inject epinephrine (adrenaline) auto-injector (EpiPen) into the outer thigh as soon as possible. Call emergency services. Lay the person flat with legs raised (unless breathing is difficult — then sit up). A second EpiPen may be given after 5–15 minutes if symptoms persist. Monitor breathing and be prepared to perform CPR.
A fracture is a break or crack in a bone. Types: closed (skin intact), open/compound (bone pierces skin — infection risk). A dislocation is when bones in a joint are forced out of their normal position. Both cause pain, swelling, and loss of function. First aid: immobilise with a sling or splint, do not attempt to reduce a dislocation, seek medical attention immediately.
For severe bleeding: (1) Apply direct pressure with a clean cloth or bandage and maintain firm, continuous pressure. (2) Do not remove the cloth if it becomes soaked — add more on top. (3) If on a limb, raise it above heart level. (4) If direct pressure does not control bleeding, consider a tourniquet on limbs (2–3 inches above the wound). (5) Call emergency services.
If a conscious adult is choking and cannot cough: (1) Give 5 firm back blows between the shoulder blades with the heel of your hand. (2) Give 5 abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoeuvre) — stand behind them, link hands below the ribcage, pull sharply inward and upward. (3) Alternate between 5 back blows and 5 abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged or the person becomes unconscious (then begin CPR).