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CompTIA A+ Core 1 & 2

150 practice questions and 100 flashcards covering both CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) exam objectives.

CompTIA A+ is the most widely recognised entry-level IT support certification globally and the standard credential for help desk, desktop support, and field technician roles in South Africa. Passing both Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) earns the A+ certification β€” both must be passed separately. This practice set covers both exams: Core 1 (mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualisation, troubleshooting) and Core 2 (operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, operational procedures).

A+ questions are scenario-based β€” you are described a problem and must identify the most likely cause or the correct next troubleshooting step. Always apply CompTIA's 6-step troubleshooting methodology: Identify the problem, Establish a theory, Test the theory, Establish a plan of action, Implement the solution, Verify and document. Recognising which step is being asked about immediately narrows your answer.

The Windows operating system section of Core 2 is the most content-heavy area in the entire A+ curriculum β€” know the key command-line tools (ipconfig, ping, netstat, tracert, sfc, chkdsk, diskpart), Task Manager functions, and the Windows Registry structure. In the South African market, A+ is the gateway certification to Network+ and Security+, which unlock significantly higher-paying roles.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102). The industry-standard entry-level IT certification. Covers hardware, mobile devices, networking, virtualisation, cloud computing, hardware and network troubleshooting (Core 1), and operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures (Core 2).
0/150
correct answers
Q1/150
What type of connector does DDR5 RAM use?
Explanation: DDR4 and DDR5 both use 288-pin DIMM. DDR5 is not backward compatible with DDR4 slots despite same pin count (different keying).
Q2/150
What is the purpose of thermal paste?
Explanation: Thermal paste (compound): fills air gaps between CPU and cooler. Air is a poor conductor β€” paste dramatically improves heat transfer.
Q3/150
What is the difference between SATA and NVMe?
Explanation: NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express): PCIe interface, M.2 or U.2 connector. Much higher throughput and lower latency than SATA SSDs.
Q4/150
What does POST stand for?
Explanation: POST: run by BIOS/UEFI at startup. Checks CPU, RAM, storage, GPU. Beep codes or POST codes indicate failures.
Q5/150
What is the purpose of UEFI?
Explanation: UEFI: supports GPT partitions (>2TB), Secure Boot, faster startup, mouse support. Replaced legacy BIOS on modern hardware.
Q6/150
What is Secure Boot?
Explanation: Secure Boot: UEFI validates cryptographic signature of bootloader. Prevents unsigned (potentially malicious) OS from loading.
Q7/150
What does GPU stand for?
Explanation: GPU: parallel architecture, thousands of cores. Used for graphics, AI/ML, cryptocurrency mining, video encoding.
Q8/150
What is the difference between integrated and discrete graphics?
Explanation: Integrated GPU (Intel UHD, AMD Vega): on CPU die, shares system RAM. Discrete (Nvidia, AMD RX): dedicated VRAM, much faster for gaming/CAD.
Q9/150
What is RAM latency (CL)?
Explanation: CAS latency (CL): CL16 at 3200MHz vs CL14 at 3200MHz β€” CL14 is faster. Always compare latency AND frequency together.
Q10/150
What is ECC RAM?
Explanation: ECC: extra bits detect and correct single-bit memory errors. Prevents data corruption and crashes in critical systems. Requires compatible CPU/motherboard.
Q11/150
What is the purpose of a PSU's 80 PLUS rating?
Explanation: 80 PLUS: certified at least 80% efficiency. Higher tiers (Gold, Platinum) waste less power as heat. Saves electricity costs.
Q12/150
What does ATX stand for in motherboard form factors?
Explanation: ATX: 305Γ—244mm. Most common desktop form factor. mATX: smaller. ITX: mini. EATX: extended. Determines case compatibility.
Q13/150
What is the function of chipset on a motherboard?
Explanation: Chipset: traffic controller. Determines PCIe lanes, USB ports, SATA ports, overclocking support. Intel Z-series vs B-series vs H-series.
Q14/150
What is PCIe and what are its versions?
Explanation: PCIe: x1, x4, x8, x16 slots (lane count). PCIe 4.0 x16 = 32GB/s. Used for GPUs, NVMe SSDs, NICs. Backward compatible.
Q15/150
What is a KVM switch?
Explanation: KVM: Keyboard, Video, Mouse switch. One set of peripherals for multiple PCs. Used in server rooms and multi-system setups.
Q16/150
What does RAID 0 do?
Explanation: RAID 0: stripe set. Combines drives for speed (reads/writes split across drives). If one drive fails β€” ALL data lost. Not for reliability.
Q17/150
What does RAID 1 do?
Explanation: RAID 1: mirror. Exact duplicate on second drive. Lose half storage capacity. Can survive one drive failure. Good for critical data.
Q18/150
What does RAID 5 require and provide?
Explanation: RAID 5: 3+ drives. Parity distributed across all drives. Survive 1 drive failure. Storage = (n-1) Γ— drive size. Popular for NAS.
Q19/150
What is the purpose of a UPS?
Explanation: UPS: battery backup. Provides minutes to hours of power during outage. Allows graceful shutdown. Also conditions power quality.
Q20/150
What is DisplayPort vs HDMI?
Explanation: DisplayPort: common on PCs, supports higher refresh rates (360Hz+), daisy chaining. HDMI: universal on TVs, supports ARC/eARC for audio return.
Q21/150
What is USB 3.2 Gen 2x2?
Explanation: USB 3.2 Gen 2x2: 20Gbps. Gen 1=5Gbps, Gen 2=10Gbps, Gen 2x2=20Gbps. USB4: 40Gbps (same as Thunderbolt 3).
Q22/150
What is Thunderbolt 4?
Explanation: Thunderbolt 4: 40Gbps, 2Γ— 4K or 1Γ— 8K display, PCIe tunneling, up to 100W power delivery. USB-C connector. Intel-developed.
Q23/150
What is a laser vs inkjet printer?
Explanation: Laser: fuser melts toner to paper. Fast, high-volume, low cost per page. Inkjet: piezoelectric or thermal heads spray ink. Better colour quality.
Q24/150
What is duplexing in printing?
Explanation: Duplex printing: print both sides automatically. Requires duplexer unit. Saves paper and reduces job time for multi-page documents.
Q25/150
What is a print spooler?
Explanation: Print spooler: queues print jobs. Allows multiple jobs to be submitted without waiting. Service can be restarted if queue hangs.
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Q26/150
What are the steps to install a printer driver?
Explanation: Printer installation: find correct driver (manufacturer site), install, connect, test. Network printers: add by IP or auto-discover via WSD.
Q27/150
What is the 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) improvement over Wi-Fi 5?
Explanation: Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax): OFDMA (multiple clients simultaneously), 8Γ—8 MU-MIMO, BSS colouring (reduce interference), up to 9.6Gbps theoretical.
Q28/150
What is the difference between 2.4GHz and 5GHz Wi-Fi?
Explanation: 2.4GHz: penetrates walls better, more crowded (only 3 non-overlapping channels). 5GHz: faster, less interference, shorter range.
Q29/150
What is a DNS server?
Explanation: DNS: Domain Name System. Resolves 'google.com' to 142.250.x.x. Hierarchy: root β†’ TLD (.com) β†’ authoritative. Caching reduces lookup time.
Q30/150
What is DHCP?
Explanation: DHCP: server assigns IP config automatically. DORA: Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge. Without DHCP: must manually configure every device.
Q31/150
What is NAT and why is it used?
Explanation: NAT: router translates private (192.168.x.x, 10.x.x.x) to one public IP. Essential because IPv4 addresses are exhausted (~4.3 billion total).
Q32/150
What is the loopback address?
Explanation: Loopback: 127.0.0.1 (IPv4) or ::1 (IPv6). Ping 127.0.0.1 to test TCP/IP stack is working on local machine.
Q33/150
What is a subnet mask?
Explanation: Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 = /24. First 3 octets = network, last = host. Determines which IPs are on the same network.
Q34/150
What is the default gateway?
Explanation: Default gateway: router on local network. Traffic for external destinations goes to gateway first, then routed to internet.
Q35/150
What is an APIPA address?
Explanation: APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing): Windows assigns 169.254.x.x when no DHCP response. Indicates network/DHCP issue.
Q36/150
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
Explanation: TCP: three-way handshake, ACKs, retransmission. HTTP, email. UDP: no handshake, streaming, gaming, DNS where speed > reliability.
Q37/150
What is a MAC address?
Explanation: MAC (Media Access Control): Layer 2 physical address. First 3 bytes = OUI (manufacturer). Used for local network communication.
Q38/150
What is ARP?
Explanation: ARP: when device knows IP but needs MAC, broadcasts ARP request. Target replies with its MAC. Stored in ARP cache.
Q39/150
What ports do HTTP and HTTPS use?
Explanation: HTTP: 80. HTTPS: 443. Other common ports: FTP 21, SSH 22, SMTP 25, DNS 53, RDP 3389, SMB 445.
Q40/150
What is a VPN?
Explanation: VPN: encrypts traffic between client and VPN server. Hides real IP, bypasses geographic restrictions, secures public Wi-Fi connections.
Q41/150
What is phishing?
Explanation: Phishing: social engineering via email (email phishing), SMS (smishing), voice (vishing). Creates urgency, impersonates trusted entities.
Q42/150
What is ransomware?
Explanation: Ransomware: encrypts files/drives, demands cryptocurrency ransom. Spread via phishing, vulnerable RDP, drive-by downloads. Prevention: backups, patching.
Q43/150
What is the Windows Registry?
Explanation: Registry: hives (HKLM, HKCU, etc.). Settings for hardware, software, user preferences. Accessed via regedit.exe. Backup before editing.
Q44/150
What is Safe Mode in Windows?
Explanation: Safe Mode: loads minimal drivers. Diagnose driver conflicts, remove malware, fix boot issues. F8 (legacy) or Shift+Restart β†’ Advanced Options.
Q45/150
What is the purpose of CHKDSK?
Explanation: CHKDSK: Check Disk. Finds and fixes file system errors, marks bad sectors. Run from elevated command prompt: chkdsk C: /f /r
Q46/150
What is SFC /scannow?
Explanation: SFC /scannow: System File Checker. Scans all protected system files, replaces corrupted files from cache. Run as administrator.
Q47/150
What is the purpose of Task Manager?
Explanation: Task Manager (Ctrl+Shift+Esc): view processes, performance metrics, services, startup items, users. End tasks, set priority.
Q48/150
What is a driver?
Explanation: Driver: translates OS commands for specific hardware. Wrong/outdated driver causes device malfunction. Update via Device Manager or manufacturer site.
Q49/150
What is Device Manager used for?
Explanation: Device Manager: shows all hardware. Yellow ! = driver issue. Right-click β†’ Update driver. Rollback driver if update causes problems.
Q50/150
What is Event Viewer in Windows?
Explanation: Event Viewer: logs critical, error, warning, information events. Check Application and System logs after crashes or errors.
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Q51/150
What is the Windows System32 folder?
Explanation: System32: despite the name, contains both 32-bit and 64-bit files on 64-bit Windows. Never delete β€” OS will not function.
Q52/150
What is a TPM chip?
Explanation: TPM 2.0: required for Windows 11. Stores BitLocker keys, supports secure boot, hardware-based authentication. Can be in CPU (fTPM) or dedicated chip.
Q53/150
What is BitLocker?
Explanation: BitLocker: encrypts entire drive. Without TPM/PIN/USB key, encrypted drive is unreadable. Key stored in TPM or saved to AD/Microsoft account.
Q54/150
What is Windows Defender?
Explanation: Windows Defender (Microsoft Defender): built-in AV since Vista. Includes real-time protection, ransomware protection, SmartScreen.
Q55/150
What is UAC?
Explanation: UAC: User Account Control. Prompts (yes/no or admin password) before elevated actions. Prevents malware silently making admin changes.
Q56/150
What is a vulnerability vs exploit?
Explanation: Vulnerability: weakness exists but not necessarily exploited. Exploit: active use of vulnerability to gain access or cause harm.
Q57/150
What is social engineering?
Explanation: Social engineering: exploits human psychology. Pretexting (creating false scenario), baiting (USB drop), tailgating (piggybacking into secure area).
Q58/150
What is the principle of least privilege in CompTIA A+?
Explanation: Least privilege: standard user accounts for daily work. Admin rights only when needed, and only for that task. Core security principle.
Q59/150
What is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)?
Explanation: MFA: even if password stolen, attacker needs second factor. TOTP apps (Authenticator), SMS codes, hardware tokens (YubiKey), biometrics.
Q60/150
What is a certificate in PKI?
Explanation: Digital certificate: X.509 standard. Contains: subject, public key, issuer (CA), validity period, signature. HTTPS uses TLS certificates.
Q61/150
What is symmetric vs asymmetric encryption?
Explanation: Symmetric: AES-256. Fast, used for bulk data. Asymmetric: RSA-2048. Slow, used for key exchange and signatures. TLS uses both.
Q62/150
What is AES encryption?
Explanation: AES: NIST standard since 2001. Replaced DES/3DES. AES-256 used in BitLocker, WPA2/3, TLS. Considered quantum-resistant at 256-bit.
Q63/150
What is a hash function?
Explanation: Hash: MD5 (broken), SHA-1 (deprecated), SHA-256 (current). Same input always produces same hash. Cannot reverse. Used in password storage.
Q64/150
What is a man-in-the-middle attack?
Explanation: MITM: ARP spoofing, rogue Wi-Fi hotspot. Solution: end-to-end encryption (HTTPS/TLS), certificate pinning, VPN.
Q65/150
What is a zero-day vulnerability?
Explanation: Zero-day: no known fix. Between discovery and patch = window of exposure. Sold on dark web. High value for nation-state attackers.
Q66/150
What is a DMZ in networking?
Explanation: DMZ: double-firewall architecture. External: internet→DMZ. Internal: DMZ→LAN. Web servers in DMZ — compromise doesn't reach internal network.
Q67/150
What is port forwarding?
Explanation: Port forwarding: external request on port 3389 β†’ router forwards to internal 192.168.1.5:3389 (RDP). Required for hosting services behind NAT.
Q68/150
What is a proxy server?
Explanation: Proxy: client β†’ proxy β†’ internet. Forward proxy: clients use it to reach internet. Reverse proxy: internet β†’ proxy β†’ internal servers (load balancing).
Q69/150
What is the difference between IDS and IPS?
Explanation: IDS (Intrusion Detection System): alerts only. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System): inline, blocks traffic in real time. IPS adds latency.
Q70/150
What is a baseline in IT security?
Explanation: Baseline: document normal CPU, network, memory usage. Deviations trigger alerts. Vulnerability scanners compare against known-good baseline.
Q71/150
What is log management?
Explanation: Log management: centralised SIEM collects logs. Retention for compliance (PCI DSS: 1 year). Analyse for threats, audit, incident response.
Q72/150
What is the OSI model's Layer 1?
Explanation: Layer 1 (Physical): bits over medium. Ethernet cable, fibre, Wi-Fi radio signals, connectors. No addressing β€” just raw signal transmission.
Q73/150
What is the OSI model's Layer 2?
Explanation: Layer 2 (Data Link): frames, MAC addressing, Ethernet, Wi-Fi 802.11. Switches operate here. CRC error detection.
Q74/150
What is the OSI model's Layer 3?
Explanation: Layer 3 (Network): IP addresses, routing between networks. Routers operate here. IPv4, IPv6, ICMP (ping).
Q75/150
What is the OSI model's Layer 4?
Explanation: Layer 4 (Transport): TCP (reliable) and UDP (unreliable). Port numbers. Segmentation and reassembly of data. End-to-end communication.
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Q76/150
What is netstat used for?
Explanation: netstat: view established connections, listening ports, protocol stats. netstat -an shows all connections numerically.
Q77/150
What is ipconfig /flushdns?
Explanation: ipconfig /flushdns: clear cached DNS entries. Old entries may cause name resolution failures after DNS record changes.
Q78/150
What is the command to release and renew DHCP?
Explanation: ipconfig /release: releases current DHCP lease. ipconfig /renew: requests new IP from DHCP server. Use when IP addressing issues.
Q79/150
What is tracert used for?
Explanation: tracert (Windows) / traceroute (Linux): shows each router hop to destination. Identify where packet loss or high latency occurs.
Q80/150
What is nslookup used for?
Explanation: nslookup: query DNS. nslookup google.com returns IP. nslookup -type=MX domain returns mail servers. Diagnose DNS resolution issues.
Q81/150
What is the purpose of msconfig?
Explanation: msconfig (System Configuration): manage startup, services, boot options. Safe Mode boot, selective startup for troubleshooting.
Q82/150
What is the Windows command to check IP configuration?
Explanation: ipconfig: basic IP info. ipconfig /all: full details including MAC, DHCP server, DNS. Essential for network troubleshooting.
Q83/150
What is a clean boot in Windows?
Explanation: Clean boot: disable all non-Microsoft services and startup programs via msconfig. Identify if third-party software causes issue.
Q84/150
What is Windows System Restore?
Explanation: System Restore: snapshots of registry and system files. Doesn't affect personal files. Restore point created before driver/software installs.
Q85/150
What is the purpose of disk defragmentation?
Explanation: Defrag: on HDDs only. SSDs should NOT be defragmented (wears flash cells, SSDs handle tour internally). Windows auto-defrags HDDs weekly.
Q86/150
What is the difference between FAT32 and NTFS?
Explanation: FAT32: max 4GB file, 8TB volume, no permissions. NTFS: no practical file size limit, NTFS permissions, EFS, journaling. exFAT: large files + cross-platform.
Q87/150
What is an MBR vs GPT partition scheme?
Explanation: MBR: Master Boot Record. Legacy BIOS. GPT: GUID Partition Table. Required for drives >2TB and UEFI Secure Boot. GPT includes redundant partition table.
Q88/150
What is the purpose of the pagefile?
Explanation: Pagefile: virtual memory on disk. When RAM full, least-used pages swapped to pagefile. Much slower than RAM. Size = 1.5-3Γ— RAM typically.
Q89/150
What command creates a directory in Windows Command Prompt?
Explanation: mkdir (or md) directoryname creates a new directory. cd changes directory. dir lists contents. del deletes files.
Q90/150
What is Windows PowerShell?
Explanation: PowerShell: object-based, not text-based. Cmdlets (verb-noun). Remoting, DSC, module ecosystem. Used extensively for Windows automation.
Q91/150
What is RDP?
Explanation: RDP: port 3389. Built into Windows. Enable in System Properties β†’ Remote. Encrypts session. Common attack vector β€” change port, use NLA, MFA.
Q92/150
What is the ipconfig /all command for?
Explanation: ipconfig /all: physical address (MAC), DHCP enabled/disabled, DHCP server IP, lease times, DNS servers. Essential diagnostic command.
Q93/150
What is BSOD (Blue Screen of Death)?
Explanation: BSOD: STOP error. System halts to prevent corruption. Note the stop code (e.g., 0x0000007E). Check Event Viewer β†’ System log for WinError.
Q94/150
What is an inkjet printer's printhead?
Explanation: Printhead: thermal (bubble jet) β€” heat creates bubble forcing ink drop. Piezoelectric β€” electrical charge deforms crystal. Piezo more precise.
Q95/150
What is the drum unit in a laser printer?
Explanation: Photosensitive drum: corona wire charges it. Laser draws image. Toner attracted to charged areas. Drum transfers toner to paper. Fuser melts it.
Q96/150
What is the fuser unit in a laser printer?
Explanation: Fuser: heated rollers (150-200Β°C) melt toner powder and press it into paper fibres. Reason for warm output and risk of fire if jammed.
Q97/150
What is corona wire/charge roller in laser printer?
Explanation: Corona wire or charge roller: applies high-voltage negative charge uniformly to drum surface. If dirty, causes streaks or print quality issues.
Q98/150
What is the print process order in laser printing?
Explanation: 7 steps: 1-Processing (RIP), 2-Charging (drum), 3-Exposing (laser), 4-Developing (toner), 5-Transferring (paper), 6-Fusing (heat), 7-Cleaning (drum).
Q99/150
What is a mobile device MDM?
Explanation: MDM: corporate management of smartphones/tablets. Enforce policies (PIN, encryption, app whitelist), remote wipe, certificate distribution.
Q100/150
What is the difference between iOS and Android from an IT perspective?
Explanation: iOS: walled garden, harder to compromise, consistent updates. Android: fragmented updates, sideloading risk, more malware exposure, but more flexible.
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Q101/150
What is AirDrop?
Explanation: AirDrop: Bluetooth + Wi-Fi Direct peer-to-peer. Share files between Apple devices without internet. Set to Contacts Only to prevent strangers.
Q102/150
What is a print server?
Explanation: Print server: shared printing. Can be standalone device (JetDirect), NAS function, or Windows print server. Manages queue for all users.
Q103/150
What is a zero-client?
Explanation: Zero client: no OS, no local CPU/RAM. Purely streams display from server. Most secure β€” no local data. Requires always-on server connection.
Q104/150
What is a thin client?
Explanation: Thin client: small OS (often Linux), limited local processing. Runs apps from server (RDS, Citrix, VMware). Lower cost, easier management, centralised data.
Q105/150
What is virtualisation?
Explanation: Virtualisation: hypervisor (VMware, Hyper-V, KVM) creates VMs sharing host hardware. Better resource utilisation, isolation, easy snapshot and recovery.
Q106/150
What is a hypervisor?
Explanation: Type 1 (bare metal): VMware ESXi, Hyper-V, KVM β€” runs directly on hardware, better performance. Type 2 (hosted): VirtualBox, VMware Workstation β€” runs on OS.
Q107/150
What is cloud computing?
Explanation: Cloud: IaaS (infrastructure), PaaS (platform), SaaS (software). Benefits: scalability, OpEx model, geographic reach, high availability.
Q108/150
What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
Explanation: IPv4: 32-bit (four octets, e.g., 192.168.1.1). IPv6: 128-bit hexadecimal (e.g., 2001:db8::1). No NAT needed with IPv6. Auto-configuration.
Q109/150
What is SSID?
Explanation: SSID: Wi-Fi network name. Broadcasts in beacon frame. Can be hidden (but discoverable). Different SSIDs for 2.4GHz and 5GHz on same AP.
Q110/150
What is WPA2 vs WPA3?
Explanation: WPA2: widely deployed, uses PSK (can be dictionary attacked offline). WPA3: SAE (Dragonfly) handshake prevents offline attacks, protects past sessions (PFS).
Q111/150
What is a captive portal?
Explanation: Captive portal: browser redirected to login/accept page before internet access. Hotels, airports, guest Wi-Fi. Tracks usage, controls access.
Q112/150
What command shows current running processes in Windows?
Explanation: tasklist: command-line process list. taskkill /F /PID [id] to end process. PowerShell: Get-Process. Task Manager is GUI equivalent.
Q113/150
What is the Windows Task Scheduler?
Explanation: Task Scheduler: create tasks (backup, script) to run at scheduled time or event trigger (login, startup, event log entry).
Q114/150
What is Computer Management in Windows?
Explanation: Computer Management: compmgmt.msc. Provides: Event Viewer, Device Manager, Disk Management, Services, Local Users and Groups.
Q115/150
What is Disk Management used for?
Explanation: Disk Management: diskmgmt.msc. Create/delete partitions, format, change drive letters, convert MBR↔GPT, extend/shrink volumes.
Q116/150
What is the purpose of robocopy?
Explanation: Robocopy: robust file copy. /MIR (mirror), /Z (restart mode), /LOG (logging). Supersedes xcopy for reliable backup scripts.
Q117/150
What is Windows File History?
Explanation: File History: backs up libraries (Documents, Pictures, etc.) at regular intervals to external/network drive. Restore previous file versions.
Q118/150
What is a Windows service?
Explanation: Services: run in background (Print Spooler, Windows Update, DHCP Client). Start/stop in services.msc. Can be set to Automatic/Manual/Disabled.
Q119/150
What is the Windows Resource Monitor?
Explanation: Resource Monitor: resmon.exe. Detailed per-process resource usage. Identify resource bottlenecks. Accessible from Task Manager > Performance tab.
Q120/150
What is the Windows Performance Monitor?
Explanation: perfmon.exe: graph performance counters over time. Create data collector sets. Alert on threshold breach. Useful for trending analysis.
Q121/150
What is Group Policy in Windows?
Explanation: Group Policy: GPOs applied at domain, OU, or site level via Active Directory. Control software, security, desktop, restrictions across all domain computers.
Q122/150
What is Active Directory?
Explanation: Active Directory (AD): LDAP-based. Centralised authentication (Kerberos), authorisation, Group Policy. Domain Controller manages authentication.
Q123/150
What is LDAP?
Explanation: LDAP: port 389 (389 LDAPS: 636). Query AD for user info, authenticate, search. Basis of many enterprise authentication systems.
Q124/150
What is Kerberos?
Explanation: Kerberos: ticket-based authentication. KDC issues TGT (Ticket Granting Ticket). Client presents TGT to get service ticket. No password in transit.
Q125/150
What is a domain controller?
Explanation: Domain Controller (DC): runs AD DS. Authenticates logons, replicates AD database with other DCs. Multiple DCs for redundancy. FSMO roles.
Q126/150
What is a workgroup vs a domain?
Explanation: Workgroup: up to 10-20 PCs, no central auth, local accounts only. Domain: Active Directory, centralised GPO, single sign-on, scalable to thousands.
Q127/150
What is an OSD image in IT deployment?
Explanation: OSD: MDT, SCCM, WDS deploy Windows images. Sysprepped image captures OS + drivers + apps. Deployed to bare metal via PXE boot or USB.
Q128/150
What is PXE boot?
Explanation: PXE: network boot. Computer gets IP from DHCP, downloads boot file from TFTP server. Used for OS deployment, diagnostic, WDS imaging.
Q129/150
What is drive imaging?
Explanation: Drive image: bit-for-bit copy including OS, settings, all files. Clonezilla, Acronis. Restore complete state quickly. Different from file backup.
Q130/150
What is the 3-2-1 backup rule?
Explanation: 3-2-1: 3 copies (original + 2 backups), 2 media types (e.g., HDD + cloud), 1 offsite. Protects against local disaster, hardware failure, ransomware.
Q131/150
What is a full backup vs incremental backup?
Explanation: Full: all data, large, slow backup, fast restore. Incremental: changes since last backup, small, fast backup, slow restore (need full + all incrementals).
Q132/150
What is differential backup?
Explanation: Differential: changes since last FULL backup. Grows daily. Faster restore: need only full + latest differential. Middle ground between full and incremental.
Q133/150
What is the tinker protocol telnet used for?
Explanation: Telnet: port 23. Unencrypted β€” everything in plain text. Deprecated. Use SSH (port 22) instead. Still found on legacy devices.
Q134/150
What is SSH?
Explanation: SSH: encrypts all traffic. RSA/ECDSA keys for key-based authentication. SCP and SFTP use SSH for secure file transfer.
Q135/150
What is FTP vs SFTP?
Explanation: FTP: plain text, credentials exposed. SFTP: uses SSH, fully encrypted. FTPS: FTP over TLS (port 990 implicit). Always use SFTP or FTPS.
Q136/150
What is SMTP?
Explanation: SMTP: port 25 (server-to-server, often blocked by ISPs). Port 587 (client submission, authenticated, TLS). Port 465 (legacy SMTPS).
Q137/150
What is IMAP vs POP3?
Explanation: IMAP: email stays on server, multiple device sync (mail shows on phone and desktop). POP3: downloads, deletes from server, one device only.
Q138/150
What is HTTPS TLS handshake?
Explanation: TLS handshake: ClientHello β†’ ServerHello + certificate β†’ key exchange β†’ session key established β†’ encrypted communication. Modern: TLS 1.3 (2018).
Q139/150
What is port 443?
Explanation: Port 443: HTTPS. Encrypted HTTP. Look for padlock icon in browser. Certificate validates server identity. All traffic encrypted in transit.
Q140/150
What is a rootkit?
Explanation: Rootkit: hides within OS, often modifying kernel. May hide other malware. Detection: offline scanner, bootable AV, rootkit detectors. Often requires OS reinstall.
Q141/150
What is a Trojan horse?
Explanation: Trojan: appears legitimate (game, utility). Doesn't self-replicate. May create backdoor, download other malware, steal data. User installs it themselves.
Q142/150
What is a keylogger?
Explanation: Keylogger: can be software (malware) or hardware (USB dongle). Silently records keystrokes, stores or transmits to attacker. MFA and screen keyboards help prevent.
Q143/150
What is a botnet?
Explanation: Botnet: hundreds to millions of compromised computers. Operated via C2 (command and control) server. Used for spam, DDoS, crypto mining, credential stuffing.
Q144/150
What is spyware?
Explanation: Spyware: collects information without consent. Browser history, passwords, banking credentials. Often installed via bundled software or malicious sites.
Q145/150
What is adware?
Explanation: Adware: displays pop-up ads, redirects browser. Usually not malicious beyond annoyance. Can slow system. Remove with anti-malware.
Q146/150
What is BYOD (Bring Your Own Device)?
Explanation: BYOD: lower hardware costs for employer, employees use familiar devices. Risks: data loss, mixing personal/corporate data, unmanaged device security.
Q147/150
What is MAM (Mobile Application Management)?
Explanation: MAM: manages apps (corporate email, Teams) without controlling personal device. Wipe corporate apps/data without wiping personal device. BYOD-friendly.
Q148/150
What is OS patching?
Explanation: Patching: most common attack vector is unpatched vulnerabilities. Windows Update, WSUS for enterprise. Test patches in lab before widespread deployment.
Q149/150
What is WSUS?
Explanation: WSUS: approve, test, and deploy Windows updates centrally. Control which patches deploy. Schedule maintenance windows. Reduce bandwidth vs direct download.
Q150/150
What is an SSD vs HDD?
Explanation: SSD: NAND flash. No seek time. Much faster boot and load times. More durable (shock resistant). HDD: magnetic platters. More storage per dollar. Better for bulk storage.

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Frequently Asked Questions

CompTIA A+ is an entry-level IT certification that validates foundational IT skills. It covers hardware, software, networking, security, and troubleshooting. The A+ consists of two exams: Core 1 (220-1101) covering mobile, networking, and hardware, and Core 2 (220-1102) covering OS, security, software, and operational procedures.
Key desktop components: CPU (processor), RAM (temporary working memory), Motherboard (connects all components), Storage (HDD/SSD), PSU (power supply unit), GPU (graphics card), Optical Drive (DVD/Blu-ray), Case with cooling fans. The motherboard form factors include ATX, Micro-ATX, and Mini-ITX.
HDD (Hard Disk Drive) uses spinning magnetic platters and a read/write head. It is slower but cheaper per GB. SSD (Solid State Drive) uses flash memory with no moving parts β€” faster, more durable, quieter, and lower power consumption but more expensive per GB. NVMe SSDs connect via PCIe and are significantly faster than SATA SSDs.
RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile temporary storage the CPU uses while working. Types: DDR4 (current standard), DDR5 (newer, faster). SO-DIMM (smaller form factor for laptops). ECC RAM (error-correcting, used in servers). RAM speed is measured in MHz (e.g., DDR4-3200). More RAM allows more programs to run simultaneously without slowdown.
The CompTIA troubleshooting methodology: (1) Identify the problem β€” gather information, question the user. (2) Establish a theory β€” consider probable causes. (3) Test the theory. (4) Establish a plan of action. (5) Implement the solution. (6) Verify full system functionality. (7) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Common cables: Cat5e (1Gbps, 100m), Cat6 (1-10Gbps, 55m at 10G), Cat6a (10Gbps, 100m), Coaxial (cable TV/older networks), Fibre optic (long distance, immune to EMI β€” single-mode for long runs, multi-mode for short runs). RJ-45 connector for Ethernet. RJ-11 for telephone. LC/SC/ST for fibre.
POST (Power-On Self-Test) is the hardware diagnostic process that runs when a PC is powered on, before the OS loads. It checks CPU, RAM, storage, and other components. If POST fails, the system emits beep codes (on older systems) or displays error codes on the screen. A successful POST leads to the boot loader finding the OS.
32-bit systems can address a maximum of 4GB of RAM. 64-bit systems can theoretically address 16 exabytes of RAM (practical limit is much less but far exceeds 4GB). All modern CPUs and operating systems are 64-bit. A 64-bit OS can run 32-bit applications but not vice versa. More RAM = better performance with multiple programmes.

About CompTIA A+

CompTIA A+ (Core 1 220-1101 and Core 2 220-1102) is the most widely recognised entry-level IT support certification globally. It validates skills in hardware, software, networking, security, and troubleshooting for desktop, mobile, and cloud environments. It is the standard baseline credential for help desk, desktop support, and field technician roles in South Africa.

A+ requires passing two separate exams β€” Core 1 focuses on hardware, mobile devices, networking, and virtualisation; Core 2 focuses on operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. Our practice set covers both Core 1 and Core 2 content areas.

For guidance on the full CompTIA certification path beyond A+, read our CompTIA Certification Path Guide.

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